Why would you discard the flood story if it passes step 3?
Wouldn’t it make more sense that, compared to today, at a time where there was no technology to communicate and influence others, over large distances, with cultural separation, linguistic separation and oceanic separation, and without cancel culture that we can safely conclude argumentum ad populum fallacy is not the case when it comes to the flood story? Because at that point in time the same basic story was told independently of others. Please note that the details that overlap are eerily similar. I have spent time reading the oral and written accounta of flood storues in different parts of the world and even i was amazed by the similarities.