OK, a question … my theist is refsuing to admit that the bible condones non-consensual sex (rape).
Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him. But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.
So, you read something that basically says, kill all the men but take all the women and children to use as your own what do you think the fate of those women (and children) was likely to be? In other words, what do those words effectively encourage you to do with them? A follow up question… if, like me, you feel that those words do sex (at least for the women), would you say that was non-consensual or not?
I realise it was a different age, a patriarchy where women had few rights at all (better today but there’s still a lot of it around) and that the real problem for Christians is marrying the morality of a culture thousands of years out of synch with ours, but I don’t feel that invalidates the questions especially when there are theists who try to justify the bible as a moral tome.
UK Atheist