The accusation of Goodwin’s law is a bit lazy, and disingenuous, since the comparison was based solely on the concept that both committed atrocities that might indirectly be perceived as helping the environment. Which is what was asserted about Khan in the OP, so I don’t see any straw man either sorry?
I was also responding to the OP, not your post, though I failed to make that clear. So any confusion arising from that I apologise for.