Precisely correct, and he used this poisoning of the well fallacy in his first half dozen posts as well, here’s a quote:
Note this is itself unevidenced rhetoric, he offers nothing beyond the bare claim and rhetoric to support this fallacious claim. The obvious response is why does @Sherlock-Holmes believe he can set a special biased criteria for his religious belief, rather than subject it to the same standards of critical scrutiny as all other beliefs, as of course such bias is the very definition of closed minded. One wonders what criteria @Sherlock-Holmes sets for his disbelief in all the deities I disbelieve, but for one exception, and wonder we will as he has been dishonestly ignoring all requests to offer any objective difference, or to offer some objective evidence that his deity exists.
the word objective never fails to ge tapologists ranting about bias, yet it is in the defintion of the word exist, so if anyone claims a deity exists (outside of their imagination) then objective evidence is essential.
Existence
noun
- the fact or state of living or having objective reality.
So we see it is @Sherlock-Holmes who is indulging closed minded bias, and not the atheists who simply asking for sufficient objective evidence, and he can pretend he doesn’t know what that means all he wants, but that kind of dishonesty ought really to be called, and usually is on here of course.
Again his early responses exposed this precisely to be the case, not among my first requests for some objective evidence for a deity:
Note his answer gives no objective evidence, just a subjective claim, and an inherent assumption this claim is “evidence” for a deity. I am still none the wiser as to why the universe is being described as rationally intelligible, it seems like nonsense to me, and even were that not the case why would this be objective evidence for any deity?